This is quite a complex issue…
My parents divorced over 40 years ago but continued to live together in the same house which was solely in my father’s name. When my father died 20 years later he died intestate and so I, being his daughter and next of kin inherited the house. It would appear that although they divorced there was no divorce settlement. The deeds remained in his name and when we discovered this my mother said she was happy with this as I would eventually inherit both their estates anyway( I am an only child) but she wished to stay on in the property and had no desire to move. So this is what happened.
When Mum was diagnosed with Alzheimers she moved in with me and we rented out the property to give me an income as I had to give up work. Now Mum is in a care home and the rent is paying the third party top up.
All is well but someone told me the other day that if a family member lives in a property you own they should pay and you should be able to prove that they were paying a market rent otherwise the local authority may have a legal right to recover contributions they have made toward the fees. Is this so?